Originally Posted by
Analytical
He/she actually made sense in your example. It's not manipulation. It was decently explained.
To add, setting a personal price with the attempt to change the price of the market is a childish thought alone. The market doesn't just consist of one seller and one buyer. The fact that the item is listed in auction for such a price means that he or she is taking a risk that within the listed period, no one else other than him/her is selling it, hence a chance for the buyer to overpay for an item (this is imperfect knowledge of the buyers, no one knows the price of everything, if the buyer did not check prices before making a purchase, there's no one to blame.)
Maybe you are able to provide another example or continue with a more constructive take on market manipulations.
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